cheers. it's that bit i can't get clear in my head...the sort of idea that each time you toss a coin and get a head, doesn't make it more likely that the next toss will be tails...even though in probability you should end up getting an equal number of each over a sequence of tosses...is that right?The Daddy wrote:Gambler’s fallacy init. What’re the chances of that happening? The probability of any set of numbers coming up is completely independent of any previous events. It might look like there’s dependence if you look at the basic probability calcs, E.g P(3) = 1/59. P(3 then 3 again)=1/3481, so it would appear that 3 is less likely the following week because the probability of it happening twice in a row is 1 in 3481, but that’s the same for any combination of 2 numbers, so it’s basically pointless maths.
GooberTheHat wrote:
GooberTheHat wrote:
GurtTractor wrote:The Daddy wrote:-ln(1-0.5x)+0.5 might be better
These just come up with a syntax error. Thanks though.
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